Economics and China

[Jester]

I propose possibly;

1. Correlation <> causality.

I didn't propose any causality; you did. Specifically, you proposed that "too much" (in the inequality sense, presumably referring to wealth or income) causes obesity. To quote:

We have more than enough to go around now. It is just some get too much (e.g. where are people obese?) and some get too little.

That's what I was responding to. And while a correlation doesn't imply causality, the *opposite* correlation is pretty difficult to square with the cause you propose.

There are some notable issues with your map (and I suspect it's data interpretation). Why are the border areas in Texas, and California (obvious impoverished areas) not obese?

I don't think that's an issue with the map, I think that's a fact of the data. But if I had to guess? Migrant communities, with different cultural characteristics, upbringing, diet, and so on to the average american poor family.

Why is Kansas and Missouri, more completely obese? Clearly, there are factors beyond poverty at play, such as those suggested in the article; food choices, sedentary hobbies (lack of exercise), stress, unemployment rates, and regional culture

No doubt. Who claimed otherwise?

I see issues with the simple poverty = obesity equation.

Me too! But as far as oversimplified equations go, it's a lot closer to true than wealth = obesity, at least for the United States. But so long as you're no longer defending the earlier statement, I'm satisfied.

-Jester