The Case of Troy Davis

[kandrathe]

I'd love to see this 'example'. The expressions of slavery differ greatly from culture to culture. At least at times, the Persian empire and everything and everyone in it belonged to the king. A form of feudalism, if not of slavery, with no apparent demand on the king to his subordinates.

Well I did a little google-fu and found this article.

"The Neo-Babylonian Text from the Persepolis Fortification," by Matthew W. Stolper. Journal of Near Eastern Studies, Vol. 43, No. 4. (Oct., 1984), pp. 299-310.
Here is one of the relevant passages from Persepolis: Bel-iddin has received from Marduk-belSunu that silver, two minas and twenty-five shekels, the price of his slave. ("1-5) Bel-iddin assumes guaranty against suits (brought by) improper or proper claimants (to the slave) (and against suits claiming) the status of king's servant, free citizen, temple oblate, (or).... (for the slave)."

I would also point out that after the domination of the Persian Empire in 651 by Islam, that the non-Islam population was subject to the dhimmi system, or put to the sword. Often vast numbers of dhimmi were enslaved if it was determined there was a violation of the dhimmi law, and often they were killed and the women and children were enslaved.

So, with my best Mythbusters bumper slide... I vote "BUSTED". :)