10-30-2005, 01:50 AM
(This post was last modified: 10-31-2005, 05:56 PM by Occhidiangela.)
Obi2Kenobi,Oct 29 2005, 07:10 PM Wrote:No. They did, in fact, contract the diseases; from my understanding of that discussion, they are merely uncertain as to whether the English/Spanish attempts at spreading a contagion were successful, or whether the native populations would have contracted the diseases, regardless of the possible efforts of the Europeans. What is certain is that at least some high ranking officials (Amherst and his subordinates are those with the most evidence of doing so) did try whatever they could in using biological agents to eradicate the native populations.
Although that does bring up an interesting question. If one attempts to infect a person or people using ineffectual means, is that still considered biological warfare?
/edit: Replaced inoculation with spreading a contagion to avoid confusion.
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Put in a nearly modern context: If in 2002 Saddam Hussein ordered a slime bomb (Anthrax loaded Scud Missile) shot at Kuwait, and it missed, hitting instead the middle of the Persian Gulf beyond Kuwaiti airspace and territorial seas, did he commit an attack of NBC weapon on Kuwait? His story of a test launch as fig leaf of course complicates the answer . . .
I'll go for Helen Keller not making a sound if she falls in a forest with no one around to hear her fall. It's an easier question to answer.
Occhi
Cry 'Havoc' and let slip the Men 'O War!
In War, the outcome is never final. --Carl von Clausewitz--
Igitur qui desiderat pacem, praeparet bellum
John 11:35 - consider why.
In Memory of Pete
In War, the outcome is never final. --Carl von Clausewitz--
Igitur qui desiderat pacem, praeparet bellum
John 11:35 - consider why.
In Memory of Pete