10-30-2005, 01:10 AM
(This post was last modified: 10-30-2005, 01:12 AM by Obi2Kenobi.)
No. They did, in fact, contract the diseases; from my understanding of that discussion, they are merely uncertain as to whether the English/Spanish attempts at spreading a contagion were successful, or whether the native populations would have contracted the diseases, regardless of the possible efforts of the Europeans. What is certain is that at least some high ranking officials (Amherst and his subordinates are those with the most evidence of doing so) did try whatever they could in using biological agents to eradicate the native populations.
Although that does bring up an interesting question. If one attempts to infect a person or people using ineffectual means, is that still considered biological warfare?
/edit: Replaced inoculation with spreading a contagion to avoid confusion.
Although that does bring up an interesting question. If one attempts to infect a person or people using ineffectual means, is that still considered biological warfare?
/edit: Replaced inoculation with spreading a contagion to avoid confusion.