This world is not ours

[Guest]

Locke begins by agreeing with Fillmer. He refers to scripture to show that "God as King David says, Psal. CXV. Xvj. Has given the Earth to the Children of Men, given it to Mankind in common". Locke accepts the premise that men share a right over the world.

Just because The Bible says that God "has given the Earth to the Children of Men, given it to Mankind in common" doesn't mean it's the truth.
Just because Locke says that "men share a right over the world", does not make his premise right.
The premises of Locke were not logically right in the first place:nobody has a moral right to claim something that what not created by him,no matter how he can work the land to make it better.
For instance,you make a chair.The chair becomes yours because you made it. You don't have a moral right to appropriate something that was not made by you in the first place and not given to you.This is the same kind of logic for land:it wasn't created by Man,thus it can't be owned by him.