Maastricht Treaty revisions needed?

[eppie]

No. Because the private company takes the money directly. The government taxes at an organizational level higher than those supplying the service. The items I mentioned (collecting, budgeting, and dispersing the money) all cost something. For the government to supply the service at the same price, it would have to be more efficient than the private company because it has (and has to have) more levels. Besides the probability of elves on unicorns, there is the fact that I stipulated the two were operating at equal efficiency.
--Pete

Of course, the costs of goods will be a bit higher for the consumer....unless the government want to subsidize something. (e.g. public transport to make people use their cars less).
Anyway, I don't care too much about this 'loss of efficiency' I was more talking about lots of people not doing anything in government jobs (Italy is a great example of this).

Later I also mentioned that when you let private parties arrange important things like health care, schools or energy, you need government regulation anyway.....and this is also a lot of work....probably even compensating the loss of effiency because of the extra levels in the finance dept. you mentioned.

Anyway, I am not advocating communism here....I just used to try to show the impossibility of a system described by kandrathe.